Original Post
I have a little problem... it´s late and there has to be a flaw somewhere:
There is a lottery, you draw 6 out of 45 numbers, without putting the balls back - so the number of getting all 6 right should be n!/n!-k! which in that case would be 45*44*43*42*41*40, which comes out to a probability of about 1:5.864.443.200.
Now, there are about a million played games per drawing, and each drawing produces, on average, one hit (this is fact now) - if I put those million games into the number above I´m still a magnitude of 10^3 short...
so where´d I go wrong?
edit:typos
[edited by - Hase on November 30, 2002 9:17:11 PM]