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probability problem

Started by cignox1 Oct 13, 2005 at 2:40 AM 5 replies 550+ views
Original Post
cignox1
cignox1
I'm currently studing probability at the university, and I'm trying to figure out how did the professor solve an exercise. Basically, there is a variable that follows an exponential law of parameter 1/4, and I need to calculate the chances that this var is greater than 4. In the solution the only explaination is: P(X > 4) = e^-1 I thought that it did this by integrating the esponential law in ]4,inf]. Is this the right way? How do I integrate f(x) = ke^(-kx)?
FlowingOoze
FlowingOoze
Quote:
Original post by cignox1
How do I integrate f(x) = ke^(-kx)?

Try finding the derivative of e^(ax).
Gorwooken
Gorwooken
I'm not too familiar with probability but you're integral would be F(x) = -e^(-kx) + C. since the the derivitive of e^(exponent involving x) is just the original function multiplied by the derivitive of the exponent with respect to x
cignox1
cignox1
Thank you, I use the integral table (on the one I have on my book there is not this integral, only e^x, and I never understood integrals :-(.

Tell me if I'm right. Now I know that my integral is k/(-k) e^(-kx). This can be simplified and becomes -e^(-kx). I have to calculate in ]4,inf] so:

-e^(-k inf) -(-e^(-k 4)) = lim (R-> inf) of -e^(-kR) - (-e^(-k 4)) = e^(-k 4)

Since k = 1/4, it is e^-1, as in the solution of the prof.

What I wonder is: x should be greater than 4 (strictly) but I calculate as in [4,inf] instead tham ]4,inf]. Does it matter?

Thank you again!
Winograd
Winograd
No, it doesn't matter.

edit: Definite integral (Riemann integral)is defined as a limit of a Riemann sum, where intervals of the summation aproach zero. This means that infinitesimal point adds zero to the sum.

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